A placebo effect is essentially a psychological effect - the recipient's response, at some level, to knowing they have been administered a placebo. I suspect that in any given instance, although the psychological placebo effect might seem quite straightforward, it likely implicates quite a number of different psychological mechanisms, and will therefore amount to a multi-variable effect. The 'control' aspect of an RCT is intended to cope with controlling for such multi-variable effects, including but not confined to placebo effects. The crucial part of an RCT I would think, is for the intervention to be the opposite: a single variable effect ideally, probably minimal (number of) variable effect in practice. Otherwise confounding effects will be huge, and unravelling intervention effects from placebo effects challenging to say the least.
But surely a psychotherapy intervention can never be a minimal (number of) variable intervention? Certainly not something like CBT or GET anyway. The whole point of such an intervention is to be a broad spectrum intervention, intervening across a range of psychological mechanisms, and must in its way implicate multiple variables. Given that the placebo effect is itself a form of psychological 'intervention', it is hardly surprising that some - maybe many - of the intervention variables possibly overlap with the placebo variables. Intervention effects and placebo effects one and the same thing in some aspects. e.g. Participants wanting to show how hard they are trying to push past their symptoms. So the confounding effects will be massive, and unravelling intervention effects from placebo effects likely impossible.
So can the notion of Randomised Controlled Trials ever be legitimately applied to psychotherapy trials, given they cannot be controlled for placebo effects, and such placebo effects can so overlap with intervention effects? RT yes, but RCT no? So does this mean that psychotherapy trials need to simply accept this, and not presume otherwise? Does it mean that if the condition under consideration is genuinely psychological in nature, then might it be that RTs are sometimes acceptable even if not RCTs? That the unavoidable unblinding of psychotherapy interventions is sometimes OK if trialling for a genuinely psychological condition? I suspect that the answer is sometimes yes.
But for physiological conditions, only RCTs make sense I would think.
ETA: Added "(number of)" in a couple of places, because realised ambiguous.