Has there ever been a meaningful study of the male to female ratio under the different criteria?
What makes me ask is that I was recently reading a paper by Pelosi and Lawrie of epidemiological findings around Glasgow . I think it was 1994. it suggested equal numbers of males and females affected (which seems out of line with the modern view). Does a lot depend on the criteria, or are there other reasons for the different findings?
What makes me ask is that I was recently reading a paper by Pelosi and Lawrie of epidemiological findings around Glasgow . I think it was 1994. it suggested equal numbers of males and females affected (which seems out of line with the modern view). Does a lot depend on the criteria, or are there other reasons for the different findings?
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